From 4d5a5663e5983d2846f980d6cbb5ca2ae54a8706 Mon Sep 17 00:00:00 2001
From: siveshs <siveshs@gmail.com>
Date: Fri, 2 Jul 2010 03:24:10 +0000
Subject: still testing

---
 Fourier Series.page | 2 +-
 1 file changed, 1 insertion(+), 1 deletion(-)

diff --git a/Fourier Series.page b/Fourier Series.page
index a050d70..b603912 100644
--- a/Fourier Series.page	
+++ b/Fourier Series.page	
@@ -7,7 +7,7 @@ To show that Fourier series is plausible, let us consider some arbitrary trignom
  $1.  \cos(2x) = 1 - 2 \sin^2(x)$
 
 $$\begin{array}{ccl} 
-e^{iy} & = & 1+iy+\frac{(iy)^{2}}{2!}+\frac{(iy)^{3}}{3!}+\frac{(iy)^{4}}{4!}+\frac{(iy)^{5}}{5!}+\cdots\\
+e^{iy}  =  1+iy+\frac{(iy)^{2}}{2!}+\frac{(iy)^{3}}{3!}+\frac{(iy)^{4}}{4!}+\frac{(iy)^{5}}{5!}+\cdots\\
  & = & 1+iy-\frac{y^{2}}{2!}-i\frac{y^{3}}{3!}+\frac{y^{4}}{4!}+i\frac{y^{5}}{5!}+\cdots\\
  & = & (1-\frac{y^{2}}{2!}+\frac{y^{4}}{4!}+\cdots)+i(y-\frac{y^{3}}{3!}+\frac{y^{5}}{5!}-\cdots)\\
  & = & \cos y+i\sin y\end{array}$$
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